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2020-2021学年北京市中考6月模拟(第二次模拟)英语试题(含答案)

2021-02-12 来源:个人技术集锦
 初三二模考试

英 语 试 卷

听力理解 (共30分)

一、听对话,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中选择与对话内容相符的图片。每段

对话你将听两遍。(共5分,每小题1分) 1. A 2. B C A 3. B C A 4. B C C A 5. B A B C 二、听对话或独白,根据对话或独白的内容,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳

选项。每段对话或独白你将听两遍。(共15分,每小题1.5分)21教育网

请听一段对话,完成第6至7小题。 6. What will the weather be like in the afternoon?

A. Windy.

B. Cloudy.

C. Rainy.

7. What will the woman wear?

A. The new coat.

B. The new dress.

C. The new trousers.

请听一段对话,完成第8至9小题。 8. Which bus is the cheapest?

A. No. 67 bus.

B. No. 12 bus.

C. No. 9 bus.

9. Where is the bus stop?

A. On the left of the fruit shop. B. On the right of the fruit shop.

C. On the other side of the fruit shop. 请听一段对话,完成第10至11小题。 10. Why did Peter call Linda?

A. He wanted to invite her to the football game. B. He didn’t know how to get to the stadium.

C. He wanted to know whether she could get a ticket for him. 11. What advice did Linda give Peter?

A. To set off early.

B. To watch TV at home.

C. To buy his tickets at once.

请听一段对话,完成第12至13小题。

12. What is the boy’s suggestion for getting good results in exams?

A. Talking with others.

B. Often taking tests.

C. Always working hard.

13. What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers? A. Classmates.

B. A teacher and a student.

C. A father and a daughter.

请听一段独白,完成第14至15小题。 14. Who needs more personal space?

A. People from China.

B. People from Japan.

C. People from America.

15. How many ways are given to communicate with foreign students? A. Three.

B. Four.

C. Five.

三、听对话,记录关键信息,对话你将听两遍。(共10分,每小题2分)

Lily Brown’s 2017 Father’s Day Gifts Whom the gifts for What for him 16 Brown A cake Some flowers How much the gifts are What the address is 19 dollars No. 157 20 Road Size: 17 Colour: 18 知识运用 (共25分) 四、单项填空(共10分,每小题1分)

从下面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. The books are interesting and we like ________ very much. A. us

B. you

C. they

D. them

22. It’s five in the afternoon and my mother is ________ home. A. in

B. on

C. at

D. of

23. ________ of my parents like watching movies.

A. All

B. Both

C. Each

D. None

24. —Which book is ________, this one or that one? —I think this one. A. useful

B. more useful

C. the most useful

D. most useful

25. —________ you swim? —Yes, and I can swim fast.

A. Can

B. Need

C. Must

D. Should

26. —________ do you go to the National Library?

—Once a week. A. How much

B. How many

C. How long

D. How often

27. We ________ in Shanghai five years ago.

A. live

B. lived

C. is living

D. will live

28. Li Linlin ________ a Mobike on the street when I saw her this morning.

A. rides B. rode C. is riding D. was riding

29. Your homework ________ before five tomorrow.

A. finish

B. is finished

C. must be finished

D. was finished

30. —Can you remember ________ our school? —Last month.

A. when Mr. Smith visits C. when Mr. Smith visited

B. when does Mr. Smith visit D. when did Mr. Smith visit

五、完形填空(共15分,每小题1.5分)

通读下面短文,掌握其大意, 然后从短文后各题所给的四个选项中,选择最佳选项。 Whenever my child caused me to change my schedule(计划), I thought to myself, “We don’t have 31 for this.” So, the two words I most commonly spoke to my child were: “Hurry up”. But my promise to slow down was made almost three years ago, and I began my journey to grasp (领会) what 32 in life.

My younger daughter is my living reminder of why I must 33 trying to slow down. The two of us had taken a bike ride to the supermarket. After buying an ice cream for my daughter, she sat down at a table 193419 looking at the ice cream she held in her hand. Suddenly a look of worry came across her 35 . “Do I have to rush, Mama?”

I could have cried. Perhaps the pains of a hurried life don’t ever completely disappear, I thought sadly. As my child looked up at me waiting to know if she could take her time, I 36

I had a choice. I could sit there in sorrow (悲伤) thinking about the number of times when I rushed my child through life…or I could celebrate the fact that today I’m trying to do things differently. I chose to live in today.

“You don’t have to rush,” I said gently. Her whole face immediately brightened and her shoulders relaxed. And so we sat side-by-side talking. There were even 37 when we sat in silence just smiling at each other.

When she got to the 38 bite (一口), she held out a spoonful of ice crystals (冰晶) and sweet juice for me. “I 39 the last bite for you, Mama,” my daughter said proudly. I realized I just got the deal of a lifetime. I gave my child a little time… and in return, she gave me her last bite and reminded me that things taste sweeter and love comes 40 when you stop rushing through life.

31. A. money 32. A. gives 33. A. keep

B. place B. wins B. like

C. time C. loses C. hate

D. room D. matters D. forget D. happily

34. A. sadly 35. A. feet 36. A. knew

B. carelessly

C. politely

B. hand

C. face

D. head

D. remembered

B. told B. days

C. described

37. A. weeks 38. A. first 39. A. ate

C. hours

D. moments

D. last D. finished D. slower

B. second B. had

C. third C. saved C. faster

40. A. harder B. easier

阅读理解 (共50分)

六、阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选

择最佳选项。(共 30分,每小题2分)

A

Mary The Musical Don’t miss Mary The Musical at Cambridge Theater London! Performances start every evening at 7 from this Saturday. Tickets are 20 pounds for adults and 15 pounds for children and can be bought online or from the theater. Teenage Drawing Competition 16-year-olds are welcome to take part in an exciting drawing competition at 2 p.m. on Saturday, August 6 at Westfield Shopping Center. It is free to enter and the first prize is a trip to New York! Meet Adele Come and meet the famous singer Adele at St. James’s Park this Sunday, April 25. Adele will sing songs from her latest CD. The event starts at 1 p.m. and ends at 4 p.m. Tickets are 8 pounds and can be bought at St. James’s Park. th 41. How much are the musical tickets for children? A. 16 pounds.

B. 35 pounds.

C. 15 pounds.

D. 40 pounds.

42. When will the Teenage Drawing Competition be held?

A. On June 7.

th

B. On August 6. C. On September 20. D. On April 25.

th thth

43. Where can you watch Adele’s performance this Sunday afternoon?

A. At Cambridge Theatre.

B. At Westfield Theatre.

C. At Westfield Shopping Center. D. At St. James’s Park.

44. The event of meeting Adele will last ________.

A. seven hours

B. four hours

B

Three Things to Do Before You Are 18

Are you bored with your daily life? Here are some things you should try before you are 18, because after that it’s too late.

Learn to swim

Seriously, this is so important that it can save your life. If you can’t swim well, you won’t be able to do water sports like waterskiing, surfing and diving. Even taking a boat trip will be dangerous for you. Make sure you do it.

Try at least one kind of team sports

Being a good team player is an important skill in life. You can’t just think of yourself, but have to work well with other people. Other advantages of team sports like basketball, football and baseball are that they keep you fit and healthy, and they are also great fun. Teams usually have a good social life too — you’ll go to lots of parties and make many friends. Collect something

One of the best hobbies for under-18s is collecting things. You could collect kinds of stamps, or you could collect things that make you remember what you have done, like cinema tickets for films you have seen or emails from friends. The best way to collect is to have a special album to put your collection in and to write what each thing means to you. That way you won’t forget.

C. five hours

D. three hours

45. The most important reason for learning to swim is that ________.2

A. you might feel well B. it can make you healthy C. it can save your life

D. you might easily do lots of things

46. “A good social life” in the passage means ________.

A. you’ll study in groups

B. you’ll work in the society

C. you’ll go to parties and make many friends D. you’ll take part in many matches 47. The writer tells us that one of the best hobbies for under-18s is to ________.

A. collect something

B. do some water sports

D. send emails to your friends

C. camp out in the garden 48. The passage is mainly about ________ before you are 18.

A. sports to play C. skills to have

C

B. things to do D. good habits to keep

I grew up in New Hampshire, a small town in South Canada, where in my father’s words for the seasons were “Spring, Summer, Fairtime and Winter!” At that time, a week-long fair was held in the town every autumn. Thousands of people from other towns came to sell and buy things. It was the busiest time of the year.

When “Fairtime” came, my grandma became the most “useful” and busiest person of the family. Grandma was a kind, well-educated old lady. She was good at cooking. All her relatives liked the food she cooked. During “Fairtime”, they would come to live in her house and have meals there. Grandma was always happy to look after them.

Year after year, many people moved to big cities. There was no longer “Fairtime”. Grandma became very old and was gradually (逐渐地) going blind. My parents and I moved to live with Grandma in her house. We did our best to make her day-to-day life as comfortable as possible. I was at high school then. What I often did at home was to help Grandma with the daily newspaper’s crossword puzzle (填字游戏). However, she didn’t look happy. She often sat in her room for hours, without saying a word.

To attract (吸引) people to move back, the Town Hall decided to reopen the fair. One day, when I came back from school, I saw Grandma wearing her glasses, washing the dishes in the kitchen. With a big smile on her face, she looked much younger. She told me that her two nieces (侄女) would come.

“They said the food I cooked was very delicious and they want to stay in my house again,” Grandma said happily. “They will stay here for one week and we can have a big party. That must be the busiest week I’ve had in years!”

I suddenly realized that Grandma didn’t want to be looked after. She wanted to be “useful”, appreciated and helpful.

49. When was the fair in New Hampshire held?

A. Every spring.

B. Every summer.

C. Every autumn.

D. Every winter.

50. What was mentioned to make Grandma happy in the passage?

A. Her two nieces would come. B. My parents moved to live with her. C. We tried to make her live comfortably. D. The writer did the crossword puzzle with her. 51. Which is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The fair usually lasts for about a week. B. Grandma was kind and educated very well.

C. Grandma preferred looking after others to being looked after. D. Grandma liked to stay in the room for hours without saying a word. 52. What’s the best title for the passage?

A. Fairtime C. A Small Town

D

Since the 1970s, scientists have been searching for ways to connect the brain with computers. Braincomputer interface (界面, 接口) (BCI) technology could help people with disabilities send commands (命令) to machines.

Recently, two scientists, Jose Millan and Michele Tavella from the Federal Polytehnic School in Lausanne, Switzerland, show a small robotic wheelchair directed by a person’s thoughts.21*cnjy*com In the laboratory, Tavella operated the wheelchair just by thinking about moving his left or right hand. He could even talk as he watched the vehicle (交通工具) and guided it with his thoughts. “Our

B. My “Old” Grandma D. Grandma’s Family

brain has billions of body cells (细胞). These send signals (信号) through the spinal cord (脊髓) to the body part to give us the ability to move. But spinal cord injuries (受伤) or other conditions can prevent these weak electrical signals from reaching the body part.” Tavella says. “Our system allows disabled people to communicate with outer world and also to control machines.”

The scientists designed a special cap for the user. This head cover picks up the signals from the scalp (头皮) and sends them to a computer. The computer finds meanings of the signals and commands the wheelchair with an engine. The wheelchair also has two cameras that tell objects in its path (路径). They help the computer react to commands from the brain.

Prof. Millan, the team leader, says, “Scientists keep improving the computer software that finds meanings of brain signals and turns them into simple commands. The practical possibilities that BCI technology offers to disabled people can be grouped in two kinds: communication, and controlling objects. One example is this wheelchair.”

He says his team has set two goals. One is testing with real patients, so as to prove that this is a technology they can get advantages from. And the other is sure that they can use the technology for long. 53. BCI is a technology that can ________.

A. help to make computer systems more modern B. connect the human brain with computers C. help the disabled to be healthier D. control a person’s thoughts

54. The team will test with real patients to ________.

A. make money from them

B. prove the technology useful to them C. make them live longer

D. learn about their physical condition 55. What does the writer mainly talk about?

A. Switzerland, the BCI research center.

B. New findings about how the human brain works. C. BCI could mean more freedom for the disabled. D. Robotic vehicles could help to cure brain sickness.

七、阅读短文,根据短文内容,从短文后的五个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 (共10分,每小题2分)

Finding Your Hidden Talents

Find your interests

What sorts of things do you like to read about, watch or do? What are your favorite shows on television? Which column of the newspaper and magazines do you like to read? 56 .

Try out different things

If you want to find out your dexterity (手艺,灵巧) in each of the things that interest you, then try them out. 57 . Locate a safe environment, where you can try out different things without anybody’s interference (干扰).

Find your passion (热情)

58 . However, there will be only a thing or two, which you are passionate about. What is the one thing that you love to do the most, with most enthusiasm (热情)? Get the answer to the question and you will come to know what exactly you are passionate about.

59

After you come to know about the areas of your interest, it is the time to improve yourself. Read lots of books and learn from people. One of the best ways to learn something is to teach. Therefore, teach what you have learnt. This will help increase your depth of knowledge. In this process, you will be able to discover all your hidden talents.

Know your limits

In the process of finding your strengths or talents, you should not ignore (忽略) your weaknesses as well. 60 . Know what makes you struggle. You will then come to know about your talents as well as the areas that you need to work on.

A. Improve yourself

B. Carry out experiments and explore things C. You may be a person of various interests D. Find out the things which you are not good at

E. To know what you are interested in is the first step towards finding your hidden talents

八、阅读短文,根据短文内容回答问题。(共10分,每小题2分)

Your smart phone may seem like the centre of your entertainment (娱乐), but a Kent State University study shows that too much phone use is taking the fun right out of our spare time.

Researchers watched a group of nearly 500 students and recorded their daily smart phone use. Those who were considered in the “high-use” group experienced more stress during their spare time than the other group.

So what can we do in order to really take advantage of our spare time? We have collected the following activities that also take a few hours to complete, but best part of all, you’ll improve your health in the process.

Whether you’re at home or on holiday, it’s important to disconnect from the Wi-Fi. Walking in a nature can do good to your health. As a professional (职业的) traveler, Samantha Brown put it in a recent passage, “I put my map in my back pocket, put down my phones and take a good, long walk. Just walk around.”

Go to bed earlier. What can help improve your mood (心情)? Extra sleep, naturally. Getting the right number of sleep is very important to our health and studies show that we don’t get enough of it.

Read a book. And let yourself get lost in a good story. Research shows that reading can reduce stress, keep your brain sharp and can even help you sleep better. Everyone should spend at least 30 minutes reading every day.

Putting pen to paper is a good exercise. Try writing down your thoughts. Writing has a lot of health advantages. Besides, writing down your thoughts may even help clear your mind. 61. How many students did researchers watch in the record? 62. What did Samantha Brown put in her back pocket?

63. What can people improve their moods according to the passage? 64. How long should people spend on books every day? 65. What’s the passage mainly about?

书面表达 (共15分)

九、文段表达(共15分)

66. 从下面两个题目中任选一题,根据中文和英文提示,完成一篇不少于50词的文段写作。文....中已给出内容不计入总词数。所给提示词语仅供选用。请不要写出你的校名和姓名。 题目①

假如你是李华,你们学校将要举行“志愿服务进社区”活动,你打算邀请你们班的交换生Peter参加。请你用英语写一封电子邮件,告诉他活动的时间和地点,志愿活动的内容以及你对志愿服务活动的看法。

提示词语: volunteering service (志愿服务), community, clean, collect, proud 提示问题:•When and where will you have the volunteering service?

•What volunteering service will you do? •What do you think of volunteering service?

Dear Peter, How is it going? I’m writing to tell you that my school is going to have the Volunteering Service in Communities. I hope you can join us. ____________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua 题目②

假如你是李华,你校英文广播站现就“Where Has My Free Time Gone”为题对你校学生进行调查。请你用英文写一篇短文向其投稿,谈谈你是否有很多空闲时间,你如何度过空闲时间,以及你觉得中学生是否应该拥有更多的空闲时间和原因。

提示词语:play games, read books, chat (聊天) online, know the world better 提示问题:•Do you have much free time?

•How do you usually spend your free time?

•Do you think you should have more free time and why?

英语答案及评分参考

听力理解 (共30分)

一、 听对话,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中选择与对话内容相符的图片。 (共5分,每小题1分)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A

二、听对话或独白,根据对话或独白的内容,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳

选项。(共15分,每小题1.5分)

6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B 三、听对话,记录关键信息,对话你将听两遍。(共10分,每小题2分) 16. Andy 17. small 18. yellow 19. 25 20. Lake

知识运用 (共25分)

四、单项填空(共10分,每小题1分)

21. D 22.C 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. C 五、完形填空(共15分,每小题1.5分)

31. C 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B

阅读理解 (共50分)

六、阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选

择最佳选项。(共 30分,每小题2分) A 41. C 42. B 43. D 44. D B 45. C 46. C 47. A 48. B C 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. B D 53. B 54. B 55. C

七、阅读短文,根据短文内容,从短文后的五个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 (共10分,每小题2分)

56. E 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. D

八、阅读短文,根据短文内容回答问题。(共 10分,每小题2分)

61. Nearly 500 students. 62. Her map. / A map. 63. Extra sleep.

64. At least 30 minutes. / At least half an hour.

65. Too much phone use is taking the fun right out of our spare time and how to take advantage of

our spare time.

书面表达 (共15分)

九、文段表达(共15分) 66. 题目①

We will do the volunteering service in the community near our school this Sunday morning. Some will help the old people clean their houses and the windows. And we will read some news or stories to them. Some will collect the rubbish in the community. Some will help the kids learn a little everyday English. I feel happy and proud when I do volunteering service for other people. It’s really great!

题目②

Where Has My Free Time Gone

I think it’s a good question for everyone to think about — my parents, my teachers and I. I find it hard for me to find free time because I have many after-classes to have and so much homework to do. When I do have some free time, I usually play the games with my smart phone. Sometimes I watch TV to spend my free time. As a middle school student, I think I should have more free time because it’s good for my health. I can do more reading in my free time and I can know the world better.

书面表达评分标准

第一档 (13-15) 第二档 (9-12) 第三档 (5-8) 第四档 (0-4) 内容要点 要点齐全 观点正确 体现交际 要点齐全 观点正确 要点不齐全, 部分内容符合题意 与题目相关 的内容不多 句式词汇 句式多样 词汇丰富 句式词汇基本能够满足要求 少量错误 句式词汇 单调平乏 错误较多 影响理解 简单拼凑 句式词汇 内容难以理解 语言表达 的准确性 个别错误为 丰富语言产生 不影响理解 语篇的连贯具有逻辑性 性 (逻辑)

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